Chapter
9 Foundations
of Group Behavior
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Defining
and Classifying Groups
1. Which
one of the following characteristics is not necessarily true about
groups?
a. Group members are interdependent.
b. Groups have two or more members.
c. Groups have assigned goals.
d. Groups interact.
e. Groups have shared fates.
(Moderate;
p. 300)
2. What
sort of groups are defined by the organization’s
structure?
a. informal
b. task
c. friendship
d. interest
e. formal
(Easy; p. 300)
3. When
do informal groups appear?
a. in response to
the need for social contact
b. in reaction to
formal groups
c. as a result of
social needs
d. most frequently
in bureaucracies
e. when formal
groups cannot meet their goals
(a; Moderate; p. 300)
4. Julia,
Bree and David work in different departments, but often eat lunch together.
They are an example of what type of group?
a. formal
b. informal
c. command
d. task
e. reactant
(Easy; p. 300)
5. Which
of the following statements is true?
a. All task
groups are also command groups.
b. All
command groups are also task groups.
c. All task
groups are also friendship groups.
d. All
command groups are also informal groups.
e. All
informal groups are also command groups.
(Moderate; p. 300)
6. The
group type that is determined by the organization chart is the _____ group.
a. job
b. work
c. authority
d. social
e. command
(Moderate; p. 300)
7. Which
one of the following group types is organizationally determined?
a. job
b. task
c. work
d. authority
e. social
(Moderate; p. 300)
8. Groups
based on support for a given sports team are examples of what sort of group?
a. booster
b. interest
c. friendship
d. sports
e. miscreant
(Easy; p. 300)
9. Employees
who band together to seek improved working conditions form a(n)
_____ group.
a. union
b. support
c. interest
d. work
e. emancipated
(Moderate; p. 300)
10. Which of
the following statements most accurately describes interest groups?
a. They are longer lasting than friendship
groups.
b. They develop because individual members
have one or more common characteristics.
c. They are formed because of some common
objective.
d. They are governed by
labor laws.
e. They are likely to involve great social
conflict.
(Moderate; p. 300)
11. Which of
the following is not one of the most common
reasons people join groups?
a. security
b. status
c. equity
d. power
e. goal achievement
(Moderate; p. 301)
Stages of
Group Development
12. What are
the five stages of group development?
a. generation,
implementation, construction, production, termination
b. introduction,
development, production, deterioration, adjournment
c. initiation,
evolution, maturation, degeneration, termination
d. forming,
storming, norming, performing, adjourning
e. acting,
reacting, enacting, impacting, acting
(Moderate; p. 302)
13. Which stage
in group development is most characterized by
uncertainty?
a. introduction
b. storming
c. forming
d. evolution
e. norming
(Moderate; p. 302)
14. Which is
the stage of group development characterized by the development of close
relationships and cohesiveness?
a. bonding
b. norming
c. performing
d. initiating
e. forming
(Moderate; p. 302)
15. In the
second stage of group development _____.
a. close
relationships are developed
b. the group
demonstrates cohesiveness
c. intragroup
conflict often occurs
d. the job task is
performed
e. groups disband
(Challenging; p. 302)
16. After which
stage of a group’s development is there a relatively clear hierarchy of
leadership within the group?
a. norming
b. storming
c. development
d. evolution
e. forming
(Moderate; p. 302)
17. After which
stage of a group’s development has the group formed a common set of
expectations of member behaviors?
a. norming
b. storming
c. maturation
d. development
e. forming
(Easy; p. 302)
18. When the
group energy is focused on the task at hand, the group has moved to the _____
stage.
a. storming
b. norming
c. production
d. maturation
e. performing
(Moderate; p. 302)
19. Temporary
groups with deadlines tend to follow the _____ model.
a. sociometry
b. five-stage group
development
c. punctuated
equilibrium
d. cluster variance
e. frantic action
(c; Moderate; p. 303)
20. A temporary
task group working under a time-constrained deadline would be expected to
behave in which of the following manners?
a. forming, then
storming, then norming, then performing, and finally adjourning
b. exhibit long
periods of inertia interspersed with brief revolutionary changes triggered by
its members’ awareness of looming deadlines
c. develop plans,
assign roles, determine and allocate resources, resolve conflicts, and set
norms
d. group energy
will move rapidly from getting to know and understand each other to performing
the task at hand
e. a period of
activity where tasks are set and the bulk of the project is completed, followed
by a period of inertia where what little work remains is performed
(Challenging; p. 302)
21. According
to the punctuated equilibrium model, groups tend to experience what for the first half of the
project?
a. inertia
b. reorganization
and redirection
c. mid-life crisis
d. markedly
accelerated activity
e. discord
(Moderate; p. 302)
Group
Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness
22. Roles,
norms, status, and cohesiveness are examples of _____.
a. structural
variables
b. team mechanisms
c. static factors
d. team factors
e. group properties
(Easy; p. 304)
23. What term
is used for a set of expected behavior patterns associated with a particular
position in a social unit?
a. role
b. role perception
c. role identity
d. role expectation
e. identity
(Easy; p. 304-305)
24. When Judith
became a doctor she modeled her manner on her observations of more experienced
doctors, and also on the behavior of doctors in medical dramas she had enjoyed
watching as a child on TV. What is Judith modeling her manner upon?
a. the role
behaviors of doctors
b. her role
perception of doctors
c. the role
identity of doctors
d. her role
expectation of doctors
e. the core role
actions of doctors
(Easy; p. 305)
25. Which of
the following is true of role identity?
a. Role
perception creates the attitudes and actual behaviors consistent with a role.
b. People
have the ability to shift roles rapidly when the situation requires change.
c. There is
considerable inertia in role identity after roles are changed.
d. Everyone
is required to play one specific role in every situation.
e. No two
people ever agree on what constitutes a role.
(Moderate;
p. 305)
26. Most people
assume that a police officer should behave in a lawful manner, and not show any
favoritism to any particular group, and do their best to uphold the law. What
term is used for this kind of belief?
a. a norm
b. a norm identity
c. a role
expectation
d. a role
perception
e. a norm violation
(Moderate; p. 305-306)
27. What term
is used for the mutual expectations of what
management expects from workers, and what workers expect from management?
a. group norm
b. role expectation
c. role
identity
d. psychological contract
e. reactive goals
(Moderate; p. 306)
28. Zach is
devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His
manager offers him a promotion but the new role will require him to work
Sundays. Zach would like the promotion, but realizes that it would force him to
miss some church activities. It is likely that Zach is experiencing which of
the following?
a. role conflict
b. role expectation
e. cognitive
reactance
(Easy; p. 306)
29. Which of
the following was the major finding of Zimbardo’s simulated prison experiment?
a. status
differences between groups will always result in conflict between those groups
b. group
cohesiveness is so important that individuals will restrain their natural
impulses in order to remain part of the group
c. individuals can
rapidly assimilate new roles very different from their inherent personalities
d. an individual’s
emotions and the behavioral responses to those emotions are congruent
e. when given the
opportunity, people will tend to act in an oppressive manner to those around
them
(Moderate; p. 306-307)
30. Which of
the following is not a finding of Elton Mayo’s Hawthorne studies?
a. a worker’s
behavior and sentiments are closely related
b. group standards
are highly effective in establishing individual worker output
c. money was less a
factor in determining worker output than were group standards, sentiments, and
security
d. competition
between groups will maximize group output
e. group influences
are significant in affecting individual behavior
(Challenging; p. 308-309)
31. What term
is used for acceptable standards of behavior that are shared by a group’s
members?
a. norms
b. rules
c. standards
d. codes of
behavior
e. explicit
contracts
(Easy; p. 308)
32. Which is not
a common class of norms appearing in most work groups?
a. performance
b. appearance
c. in-group status
d. social arrangement
e. allocation of
resources
(Easy; p. 310)
33. Which of
the following is not an example of a work group norm dealing with performance?
a. when an employee
needs to look busy
b. how hard an
employee should work
c. the appropriate
levels of tardiness
d. the acceptable
level of output
e. the importance
of promptness
(Challenging; p. 310)
34. Norms that
dictate with whom group members eat lunch, friendships
on and off the job, and social games are _____ norms.
a. appearance
b. social arrangement
c. performance
d. leisure
e. confluence
(Moderate; p. 310)
35. A local
government work-crew cleans up parks and other public spaces. In this crew the
dirtiest jobs are generally given to the newest members, while the more senior
members of the crew tend to do little except draw their pay. What is the class
of norms that encompasses arrangements like this?
a. performance.
b. appearance
c. allocation of
resources
d. financial
rewards
e. confluence
(Moderate; p. 310)
36. What norms
include things like appropriate dress and loyalty to the group or organization?
a. Performance
b. Appearance
c. Social
arrangement
d. Allocation
of resources
e. Confluence
(Easy; p. 310)
37. What term
is used for the process by which an individual’s desire
for acceptance by the group and the pressure by the group on individual members to match its standards results in
a change in individual attitudes and behaviors?
a. conformity
b. coercion
c. commitment
d. convergence
e. confluence
(Easy; p. 310)
38. The major
contribution of the Asch study was to demonstrate the impact of _____.
a. group pressures
b. seating
arrangements
c. convergence
d. status
e. cognitive
dissonance
(Moderate; p. 311)
39. What term
is used for antisocial actions by organizational members who voluntarily
violate established norms and that result in negative consequences for the
organization, its members, or both?
a. ethical dilemmas
b. deviant workplace behavior
c. abnormal behavior
d. discommitment behavior
e. reactive affirmation behavior
(Moderate; p. 312)
40. Sally works
as a salesperson in a department store. Whenever a customer asks for an item
that is in stock but not on display, she usually tells them that the product is
out of stock. “It’s a pain going into the stock-room to find an item,” says
Sally “Nobody in my department ever tells a customer the truth about what is in
stock.” This example illustrates which of the following facts about deviant
workplace behavior?
a. deviant
workplace behavior will arise when tasks that an employee is supposed to
perform are unpleasant or difficult
b. most workers do
not consider lying to a customer be deviant workplace behavior
c. workers will lie
to customers as long as the customers do not complain about it
d. deviant workplace
behavior flourishes where it’s supported by group norms
e. groups will come
to their own conclusions about what is and isn’t appropriate
(Challenging; p. 312)
41. What term
is used for the socially defined position or rank given to groups or group
members by others?
a. regency
b. authority
c. status
d. command
e. magnus
(Moderate; p. 313)
42. Which of
the following statements about status is not true?
a. Status is
an important motivator
b. possession of
personal characteristics that are positively
valued by the group will give a member higher status.
c. Low status
members are given more freedom to deviate from norms than are other members.
d. High
status members are better able to resist conformity pressures than lower status
members.
e. Conformity
is affected by status.
(Moderate; p. 314)
43. High status
people tend to _____.
a. be more
assertive
b. assist more
c. be more
reflective
d. have superior
insight
e. be well liked
(Moderate; p. 315)
44. A group is
most likely to tolerate deviation from a group’s conformity norms by which of
the following individuals?
a. a high status
individual who does not care about the social rewards the group provides
b. a high status
individual who is tightly integrated into the group’s social structure
c. a low status
individual who has only recently entered the group
d. a low status
individual who strongly wishes to integrate within the group
e. a low status
individual who is not well regarded by the rest of the group
(Moderate; p. 315)
45. Your group
is engaged in problem solving and your goal is fact-finding. Which of the following
size group should be most effective?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 10
e. 15
(Challenging; p. 316)
46. What term
is used for the tendency for individuals to spend less effort when working
collectively?
a. groupthink
b. the rule of
diminishing returns
c. social loafing
d. groupshift
e. clustering
(Easy; p. 316)
47. Which of
the following is an effective means of countering social loafing?
a. increase the
rewards the group is given if it succeeds
b. increase the
amount by which the group’s progress is monitored
c. provide means by
which individual efforts can be identified
d. increase the
size of the group
e. increase the
group’s workload
(Easy; p. 317)
48. If your
group must take action, which size should be most effective?
a. 3
b. 7
c. 12
d. 24
e. 100
(Challenging; p. 316)
49. What did
Ringelmann conclude after he compared the results of individual and group
performance?
a. the larger the
group, the greater the individual productivity
b. individual
productivity goes down as group size goes up
c. total
productivity tends to decline in large groups
d. group size is
not a determinant of individual productivity
e. groups served
little purpose in organizations
(Moderate; p. 316)
50. Research
indicates that the group size that exercises the best elements of both small
and large groups is _____.
a. 4
b. 7
c. 9
d. 12
e. 20
(Challenging; p. 318)
51. Which of
the following statements about groups is true?
a. Groups with an odd number of members are
preferable to those with an even number
b. Groups with an even number of members are
preferable to those with an odd number
c. Groups made up of four members exercise
the best elements of both small and large groups.
d. Groups that are larger are more likely to
be homogenous.
e. The relationship
between an individual’s input and the group’s output is generally clear.
(Moderate; p. 316)
52. What is it
called when an employee uses the organization’s Internet access for personal
purposes?
a. eTheft
b. cyberloafing
c. cybertheft
d. web surfing
e. smurfing
(Moderate; 317)
53. What term
is used for the degree to which group members are attracted to one another and are motivated to stay in the group?
a. cohesiveness
b. integration
c. sociability
d. reliability
e. interdependence
(Easy; p. 318)
54. Which of
the following is not likely to increase group cohesiveness?
a. a high level of
group productivity
b. members spending
a lot of time together
c. the existence of
external threats
d. the group is
physically isolated
e. bonding opportunities
exist between members
(Moderate; p. 318)
55. What will
happen if group cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low?
a. internal
conflict will be high
b. internal
conflict will be low
c. productivity
will be high
d. productivity
will be low
e. it will have
little effect on internal conflict or productivity
(Challenging; 318)
Group
Decision Making
56. Group
decisions are generally preferable to individual decisions when which of the
following is sought.
a. acceptance of
the solution
b. speed
c. efficiency
d. clear
responsibility
e. a conjunctive
solution
(Moderate; p. 320)
57. Which is not
a weakness of group decision making?
a. It is
time consuming.
b. There is
less originality.
c. It
suffers from ambiguous responsibility.
d. It can be dominated by one or a few members.
e. It’s not
clear who is accountable for bad decisions.
(Moderate; p. 320)
58. Individual
decisions are generally preferable to group decisions when which of the
following is sought?
a. speed
b. creativity
c. acceptance
d. quality
e. broad unanimity
(Moderate; p. 320)
59. What is
generally the result of groupthink?
a. higher quality
decisions
b. more risky
decisions
c. less critical
analysis
d. unpopular
decisions
e. social
reification
(Moderate; p. 321)
60. Which of
the following is a phenomenon in which group pressures for conformity deter the
group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views?
a. group conformity
b. groupshift
c. groupthink
d. compromise
e. risk transfer
(Easy; p. 321)
61. What result
does groupshift have on the decisions a group makes?
a. They are made by
groups rather than individuals.
b. They are generally riskier.
c. They are made more quickly.
d. They are less effective.
e. They are objectively incorrect.
(Moderate; p. 322-323)
62. Which of
the following is not an explanation for the phenomenon of groupshift?
a. discussion
creates familiarization among members
b. most first-world
societies value risk
c. the group leader
usually gets the credit or blame for the group action
d. the group
diffuses responsibility
e. high cohesion
(Challenging; p. 323)
63. Which of
the following is likely to generate the least innovative alternatives?
a. face-to-face
interacting groups
b. brainstorming
c. Delphi technique
d. nominal group
technique
e. electronic
meeting
(Moderate; p. 323)
64. What is
brainstorming?
a. a technique used
to build group cohesiveness
b. a technique that
tends to restrict independent thinking
c. a process for
generating ideas
d. a process used
mainly when group members cannot agree on a solution
e. the most
effective means of generating answers
(Easy; p. 323)
65. Which type
of decision-making group is most committed to the group solution?
a. interacting
b. brainstorming
c. nominal
d. electronic
e. social
(Challenging; 324)
66. Which of
the following
techniques most restricts discussion or interpersonal
communication during the decision-making process?
a. groupthink
b. nominal group
c. brainstorm
d. electronic
meeting
e. formal process
(Moderate; p. 324-325)
67. Which of
the following is not considered an advantage of electronic meetings?
a. honesty
b. speed
c. receiving credit
for the best ideas
d. anonymity
e. accurate
exchange of opinions
(Moderate; p. 325)
68. Which type
of meeting is most likely to generate the greatest commitment to the solution?
a. interacting
b. brainstorming
c. nominal
d. electronic
e. social
(Moderate; p. 325)
69. What sort
of group should you avoid if you want to minimize interpersonal conflict?
a. interacting
b. brainstorming
c. nominal
d. electronic
e. social
(Moderate; p. 325)
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